ccna 1 final exam v4.0 answers 2013

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals v4.0 - Final Exam Answers – Full - 2013-2014

1. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

2. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control

3.

Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server



4. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

6.


Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

7. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
enable secret
VTY

8.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

9. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
transport

10. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?
IP
UDP
Ethernet
a connectionless acknowledgement
an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12.


Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
D,E,F,G
A,H,B,C
A,D,E,F
A,D,E,G

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

14. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128

15.

Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly. The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown. However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.

16. To send data through a network, what two flags are used to establish a session? (Choose two.)
ACK
CRC
SYN
Ack #
Port #
Seq #

17. Which statement is true about the TTL value of an IPv4 packet?
It determines the priority of a packet.
It specifies the remaining “life” of the packet.
It indicates that the packet has been fragmented.
It denotes the data payload type that the packet is carrying.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Communication for hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
Host X is assigned a network address.
Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.

19. What type of network is maintained if a server takes no dedicated role in the network?
mainframe
client/server
peer-to-peer
centralized

20. A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
router
switch

21. Which physical component is used to access and perform the initial configuration on a new unconfigured router?
Correct answer is image 2 , CONSOLE !






22. A user sees the command prompt: Router(config-if)# . What task can be performed at this mode?
Reload the device.
Perform basic tests.
Configure individual interfaces.
Configure individual terminal lines.

23. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?
Correct answer is first image !





24. What information can be gathered by using the command netstat?
the default gateway
the routing protocol
active TCP connections
the locally configured subnet mask

25. How can ARP be used to help document the network?
It can list each hop on the way to a destination host.
It can show the average latency of hosts on the network.
It can provide a list of physical addresses on the network.
It can indicate which hosts are not responding to network traffic.

26. What is the protocol data unit that is associated with the data link layer of the OSI reference model?
data
frame
packet
segment

27. Which application layer protocol allows administrators to log into a server from remote locations and control a server as though logged in locally?
DNS
FTP
DHCP
SMTP
Telnet

28. Which statement identifies the DNS protocol?
It transmits information using TCP port 25.
It transfers and conveys information using HTML pages.
It matches a resource name with the required network address.
It requests and assigns an IP address, default gateway, and server addresses to hosts.

29. Which password would allow a user to establish a Telnet session with a Cisco device?
VTY password
enable password
console password
enable secret password

30. Which identifier is contained in the header of the Layer 2 Ethernet frame?
timing and synchronization of bits
source and destination port numbers
logical source and destination addresses
physical source and destination addresses

31. What happens when a node on an Ethernet network is creating a frame and it does not have the destination MAC address?
The node drops the frame.
The node sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message.
The node sends a message directly to the router for the address.
The node sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address.

32. An administrator makes changes to the default configuration of a router and saves them to NVRAM. After testing, it is discovered that the configurations did not have the desired effect and must be removed. What steps must be taken to remove the changes and return the router to the default configuration?
Reboot the router.
Use no version of the commands that are issued.
Issue the erase startup-config command, and then reboot the router.
Issue the erase running-config command, and then reboot the router.

33. A network administrator is tasked with connecting two workgroups that are configured to use different subnets. Which device should be selected to allow connectivity between users on the two networks?
hub
switch
router
wireless access point

34. Which two programs can be used to accomplish terminal emulation for configuring a router from the CLI through the console port? (Choose two.)
HyperTerminal
Internet Explorer
Minicom
Secure Shell
Telnet

35. Which statement accurately describes file sharing in a peer-to-peer network?
A dedicated server is required.
Access control is decentralized.
Files are typically stored on the most powerful peer in the network.
Peers can either make requests, or respond to requests, but not both.

36. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)
frame delimiting
data encapsulation
logical addressing
error detection
accessing the media

37. Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?
line
router
global
interface
privileged EXEC

38. 

Refer to the exhibit. Which device should be included in the network topology to provide Layer 2 connectivity for all LAN devices, provide multiple collision domains, and also provide a connection to the rest of the network?
server
hub
switch
PC

39.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician has been asked to test connectivity from PC1 to a remote network. Which action will indicate if there is remote connectivity?
Correct answer is first image !





40. What purpose does a hostname serve on a router?
uniquely identifies a router on the internet
used by routing protocols to identify peer routers
provides device identification to users logging on remotely
determines the hosts that are allowed to connect to the device

41. Which prompt is associated with the privileged exec mode?
R1>
R1#
R1(config)#
R1(config-router)#

42. A technician wishes to connect two computers to move data from one to the other before reloading the operating system. The NICs on both PCs do not support autosensing feature. Which procedure will satisfy the requirement?
Interconnect the two PCs with a rollover cable.
Interconnect the two PCs with two rollover cables and a hub.
Interconnect the two PCs with a crossover cable.
Interconnest the two PCs with two crossover cables and a hub.

43.

Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/0 on router A is generating excessive broadcast traffic. Which LAN segments will affected by the excessive broadcasts?
Only the 192.168.1.200/30 network will be affected.
Only the link between 192.168.1.201 and port Fa0/5 on SW1 will be affected.
Both the 192.168.1.200/30 and 192.168.1.204/30 networks will be affected.
Only the links between 192.168.1.201 and port Fa0/7 on SW2 will be affected.

44. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.

45.

Refer to the exhibit. Which layered network model is shown in the diagram?
Cisco
IETF
OSI
TCP/IP

46.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to reach host B on the remote network. A technician attempted to ping the local gateway and the ping was successful. To verify the host configuration, the technician issued the ipconfig command. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The local NIC is incorrectly configured.
The subnet mask on host A is incorrectly configured.
The IP address on host A is incorrectly configured.
The default gateway on host A is incorrectly configured.

47. Which option shows how a router will route packets to a remote network?
Correct answer is image 4 !





48. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

49. A network administrator is configuring several switches for a network. The switches have similar configurations and only minor differences. The administrator wants to save all commands that are issued on the first switch to a text file for editing. Which transfer option should be selected in HyperTerminal?
Correct answer is image 3, CAPTURE TEXT !





50. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device


51. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

52. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password

53.

 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

54. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

55.

Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?
Athens
Ankara
London
Paris
PC4

56. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
the host portion of the IP address
the network portion of the IP address
host default gateway address
the MAC address

57.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
Use the ipconfig command at the host.
Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
Use the tracert command at the host.
Use the ping command at the destination.

58.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

59.

Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.

60.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
The gateway addresses are network addresses.

61.

Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
0060.7320.D632
0060.7320.D631 0040.8517.44C3
0009.B2E4.EE03
0010.C2B4.342

62.

Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

63. Well-known services and applications use which range of TCP/UDP port numbers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

64. Which three IPv4 addresses represent subnet broadcast addresses? (Choose three.)
192.168.4.63 /26
192.168.4.129 /26
192.168.4.191 /26
192.168.4.51 /27
192.168.4.95 /27
192.168.4.221 /27

65. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
The addresses are 48 bits long.
Network layer addressing is used by Ethernet switches to make forwarding decisions.
It uses a hierarchical structure.
It does not support broadcasts.
It uniquely identifies each host.
A portion of the address is used to identify the network.

66. Which OSI layer addressing is required to route packets between two networks?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

67.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is requesting a web page from the web server. Which option represents the socket to which the request is made?
80
www.cisco.com
10.0.0.130
10.0.0.130:80

68.

Which statement describes the correct use of addresses to deliver an e-mail message from HostB to the e-mail service that is running on ServerA?

HostB uses the MAC address of ServerA as the destination.
Router B uses a Layer 3 network address to route the packet.
Router A uses the Layer 4 address to forward the packet to Router B.
Via the use of a Layer 3 address, ServerA assigns the message to the e-mail service.

69.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is configured with the correct IP address for the default gateway of the router R1 FastEthernet0/1 interface. How will a packet that is sent from host A to host B be handled by the devices on the network?
R1 will drop the packet because R1 does not have a specific route in its routing table to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will forward the packet to the directly connected network 10.1.1.0/24.
R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a default route to network 10.1.1.0/24.
R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a route that is learned by a routing protocol to network 10.1.1.0/24.

70. Which option correctly identifies the interface or interfaces used to connect the router to a CSU/DSU for WAN connectivity?
This correct answer is image 4 ( last image ).






71. How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

72. During the encapsulation process, what is the PDU of the internet layer?
bit
data
frame
packet
segment

73. Which service is used when the nslookup command is issued on a computer?
FTP
DNS
DHCP
Telnet

74.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician creates equal-sized subnets of network 192.168.2.0/24 using the subnet mask 255.255.255.224. If the technician wishes to calculate the number of host addresses in each subnet by using the formula that is shown in the exhibit, what value will be used for n?
1
2
3
4
5

75. What are the default terminal emulation software settings when configuring a Cisco device through a console port?
Bits per second: 19200
Data bits: 7
Parity: None
Stop bits: 0
Flow control: None
Bits per second: 9600
Data bits: 8
Parity: None
Stop bits: 1
Flow control: None
Bits per second: 19200
Data bits: 7
Parity: None
Stop bits: 0
Flow control: Hardware
Bits per second: 9600
Data bits: 8
Parity: None
Stop bits: 1
Flow control: Hardware

76. In a packet-switched data network, what is used to reassemble the packets in the correct order at the destination device?
source address
sequence number
priority assignment
destination address

77.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator tries to test the connectivity between routers R1 and R2, but the attempt to ping is unsuccessful. Based on the show ip interface brief command outputs, what could be the possible cause of the problem?
Interface S0/0/0 on router R1 is shut down.
Interface S0/0/0 on router R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
Interface S0/0/0 on router R2 is administratively down.
Interface S0/0/0 on router R2 does not have the clock rate settings configured.

78. Which router configuration mode will require user authentication if an administrator issues the enable secret command?
user executive mode
privileged executive mode
global configuration mode
service specific configuration mode

79. Which location of router memory is cleared with the erase startup-config command?
flash
RAM
ROM
NVRAM

80. Which subnet mask should be used for a Class B network that is divided into subnets and will accommodate between 800 hosts and 1000 hosts?
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0

81.

Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

82.

Refer to the exhibit. A web browser running on host PC1 sends a request for a web page to the web server with an IP address 192.168.1.254/24. What sequence of steps will follow in order to establish the session before data can be exchanged?
The session will be initiated using UDP. No additional acknowledgment will be required to establish the session.
The session will be initiated using TCP. No additional acknowledgment will be required to establish the session.
The session will be initiated using UDP. The returned web page will serve as an acknowledgment for session establishment.
The session will be initiated using TCP. A three-way handshake must be successfully completed before the session is established.

83. Which prompt is associated with the privileged exec mode?
R1>
R1#
R1(config)#
R1(config-router)#

84. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
The contents of ROM will change.
The contents of RAM will change.
The contents of NVRAM will change.
The contents of flash will change.

85. In a network design project, a network designer needs to select a device to provide collision free connections to 40 hosts on the LAN. Which device should be selected?
hub
router
switch
firewall

86. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?
wiki
e-mail
weblog
instant messaging

87. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

88.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
router
wireless access point

89. Which OSI layer manages data segments?
application layer
presentation layer
session layer
transport layer

90. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
1000 BASE-TX
1000 BASE-SX

91. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)#password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login

92. What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.

93.

Refer to the exhibit. When host A sends a frame addressed for host D, which hosts will receive the frame?
only host D
only hosts A and D
only hosts B, C, and D
all hosts

94. A user enters http://www.cisco.com/web1.htm in the address line of a browser. Which statement is true about this transaction?
The “http” portion indicates the protocol that is being used.
The “web1.htm” portion is the specific service name.
The retrieved web page will be displayed in URL code.
The “www.cisco.com” is the name of the web page file that is called

95.

The tracert 10.1.3.2 command was issued on computer A. Computer A can ping other addresses on the local subnet. Computer A sent the first ICMP packet toward computer B with a TTL value of 1. A protocol analyzer that was running on computer B showed that the packet never reached its destination. Why did the packet not reach the destination?
There is a TCP/IP problem on computer A.
There is a routing loop between R1 and R2.
R1 does not have a route for the destination network.
The TTL for the packet was decreased to zero by R1.

96. What can the user do from the command prompt, Router(config-line)# ?
Configure one of the network interfaces.
Configure one of the physical or virtual lines.
Verify the running configuration on the device.
Configure the parameters for one of the routing protocols.

97. Which option shows the PDU that contains the Layer 3 source and destination addressing for a packet?
Correct answer is option (image) 3.





98.

Refer to the exhibit. The ping 127.0.0.1 command is issued on the local host. What do the ping results indicate?
The local host can send packets on the local network.
The TCP/IP stack on the local host operates properly.
The local host has full connectivity to the default gateway.
The local host has full connectivity to the remote network.

99. Which topology divides the collision domain and provides full media bandwidth to the hosts in the network?
Correct answer is option (image) 3.





100.

Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies the network address, range of host addresses, and the broadcast address for the network that contains host A?
Correct answer is option (image) 3.





101. A technician is setting up a workgroup for six users and wants to allow users to share files without setting up a server. Which application layer protocol will provide for peer-to-peer file sharing in a workgroup?
DNS
SMB
HTTP
DHCP

102. Which router component will have contents erased when the command erase startup-config is issued?
flash
RAM
ROM
NVRAM

103.

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

104.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is able to access resources on the local LAN but is unable to access any resources on the Internet. What is the likely cause of this problem?
The host subnet mask in incorrect.
The network uses private addresses.
The host address is a network address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

105. What is described by the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?

rules for packet acknowledgment, error recovery, and sequencing
rules for the handoff from the internet layer to the network access protocols
rules for how source and destination hosts exchange data between programs
rules for determining which processes can be used to route messages through an internetwork

106. Which two factors contribute to the increased throughput when all nodes of a LAN are connected to a switch instead of a hub? (Choose two.)

full-duplex operation
collision-free environment
logical bus media access
broadcast-free environment
point-to-multipoint topology

107. A network technician has made a UTP cable that is terminated as T568A on one end and T568B on the opposite end. What type of cable has been constructed?

patch
console
crossover
straight-through

108. Which application belongs to the category of the client/server model?
using Telnet to access a router
exchanging information via instant messaging
printing a document to a locally connected printer
scanning a document with a directly connected scanner

109.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two layers of the OSI model describe the same functions as the transport and internet layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

application layer
presentation layer
session layer
transport layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

110. What command can be used to troubleshoot domain name resolution issues?
get
arp -a
tracert
nslookup

111.

Refer to the exhibit. For connecting two routers with an Ethernet crossover cable, which interface should be used?
A
B
C
D

112. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
127.0.0.1
196.1.105.6
132.11.9.99
10.0.0.1
172.16.9.10
46.1.1.97

113. Which option represents a point-to-point logical topology diagram?
Correct answer is option (image) 4.





114.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)

The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The SYN flag is representing the initial establishment of a session.
The destination port indicates that an FTP session has been initiated.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

115. What is the effect of the command copy running-config tftp?

copies the configuration from a remote machine into RAM
copies the configuration from a remote machine into NVRAM
copies the configuration currently in RAM to a remote machine
copies the configuration currently in NVRAM to a remote machine

116.

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network design is shown?

client/server
wide area
dedicated server
peer-to-peer

117.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?

The data is automatically encrypted.
A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

118. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?

straight-through cable
crossover cable
rollover cable
serial cable

119. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

default gateway address
host IP address
DNS address
subnet mask

120. A technician makes several changes to the running configuration on a router, but the desired results are not achieved. The technician issues the reload command. What action will be taken by the router?

All changes will be lost and the router will restart immediately.
Changes will be saved automatically and the router will restart.
The user will be prompted to save changes before the router restarts.
The router will detect changes to the running configuration and will reload using the configuration stored in RAM.

121. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 - rollover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - rollover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

122. Which scenario describes a typical peer-to-peer network environment?
An employee downloads a file that is stored on a departmental file server.
An employee edits and reviews web pages on a web server that is located in the server farm.
A teleworker logs into a core router of the corporate network and makes a configuration change.
A user on one office PC sends output to a printer that is attached to the USB port of another PC in an adjacent office. 

123. What type of cable is being used if a network administrator is connecting two Cisco routers and uses the 100BaseTX standard?
rollover cable
smart serial cable
crossover UTP
straight-through UTP

124. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

125. What are two purposes for configuring a banner on a router? (Choose two.)
to announce system downtime
to prevent unauthorized access to the router
to provide a description of interface connections
to assist in legal prosecution for unauthorized access
to provide a welcome message to users who access the router

126. An administrator needs management access to a switch from a remote offsite location. Which three configurations are required on the switch to allow the administrator to have remote access using either SSH or Telnet? (Choose three.)
default gateway
banner message
VLAN IP address
vty line password
encrypted passwords
console line password

127. Which three commands will change the current configuration mode of a router? (Choose three.)
router rip
line vty 0 4
password class
hostname RouterA
enable secret class
interface fastethernet 0/1

128. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
router
host

129.  During the encapsulation process, what identifiers are added at the transport layer?
source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
source and destination port numbers
source and destination channel identifiers

130. What action is taken by a host on an Ethernet network when the host attempts to contact a remote host on another network?
The PDU is sent using the IP and MAC address of the destination host.
The PDU is sent using the IP address and MAC address of the default gateway.
The PDU is sent using the IP address of the destination host and MAC address of the default gateway.
The PDU is sent using the IP address of the default gateway and the MAC address of the destination host.

131. Which three addresses are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.1
46.1.1.88
172.31.31.10
172.32.16.10
192.168.8.8

132. A network administrator needs to provide administrative access for certain users. Which mode will allow users access to both the show and debug commands?
user executive mode
privileged executive mode
global configuration mode
router configuration mode

133. A network has grown too large for technicians to configure network addresses and hosts files for name resolution. Which two application layer services should be added to the server to allow these needs to be satisfied dynamically? (Choose two.)
DNS
FTP
DHCP
HTTP
SMTP

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Installing Windows8 using USB Drive and Dual Booting on Windows 7

 n this video, I am going to install Windows 8 from using UltraISO, to installing Windows 8 in continuous 46 minutes video. There will be some little captions telling what I'm trying to do or what I was doing.

so I'll be showing
- UltraISO
----- selecting ISO
----- writing files from ISO to USB drive
- Selecting USB to boot
- Installing Windows 8
- Showing the dual boot screen
- Seting up the Windows 8 for the firstime
- Seting up my dual monitor in Windows 8
- Playing with the apps and features
---- IE
---- Video
---- Music
---- Pictures
---- Messaging
---- Mail
- Enabling Administrator mode
- Installing my System Power application
- Showing who boots faster

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Windows Registry Repair

Microsoft Windows registry repair is a common procedure that pretty much every PC user will run into at one time or another. The Microsoft Windows operating system, while hailed as superb technology and used by millions around the world, is not without a few shortcomings.

Microsoft the company has made many attempts to address these problems and no doubt will continue to do so, though perhaps not at the pace PC users would like. Unfortunately, the built-in instability of the Windows operating system will not go away any time soon. In the meantime, the more you know about registry problems that crop up, the easier life can be for you.

From the Horse's Mouth

There are different ways to go about Microsoft Windows registry repair. If you pay a visit to the Microsoft website, you will find loads of information about the operating system's registry - what it is what it does and what's happening when it doesn't work right.

The language can get pretty technical and confusing sometimes. A simple explanation is that the registry is a database where needed information is stored. At times, however, unneeded information can find its way into the registry, effectively blocking the CPU from being able to efficiently move information between the software and hardware.

Should that happen, a Microsoft Windows registry repair might be required. Take another look back at the Microsoft site to see what some of the error codes popping up on your screen may mean; they can tell you if the problem is likely to lie with the registry. You can follow Microsoft's suggestions on repairing registry problems, or you can use a third-party registry cleaner software package.

An Everyday Computer User's Friend

These registry cleaners, which I use personally and recommend to my customers, are without a doubt, a worthwhile addition to your PC maintenance toolbox because using them clears out the junk data piling up in the registry. Some registry cleaners you can download for free, more powerful cleaners with additional functions you may have to pay for.

You can't know too much about how to go about a Microsoft Windows registry repair if you're an everyday PC user. It's the best way to know what to do should a problem arise. Therefore, it would be wise to make a point of becoming familiar with the functions of the registry by perusing the Microsoft website.
You can also learn much from other sites that contain information about the operating system's registry; especially since there's a good chance those sites will explain things to you from a regular user's perspective.

Why would you use a registry cleaner when you can use a top rated registry cleaner, spyware cleaner, driver checker, advanced defragger and more with the Hiel Strassman recommended all new all-in-one utility? Get a free scan and you'll no longer have to ask, Why is my computer so slow? By the way, which registry cleaner is rated number 1? See how computer engineer with more than 14 years experience, Hiel Strassman rates the top performing registry cleaners. Visit Registry Fix Reviews.

Article Source: http://EzineArticles.com/?expert=Hiel_Strassman


 

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What are the advantages of Microsoft Windows 8.1?

What are the advantages of Microsoft Windows 8.1?

1. Customisable

Windows 8.1 introduces Snap functionality to the Start Screen, which allows you to re-size different applications screens independently of one another, allowing the user to run multiple apps on the same screen. Live tiles can also be re-sized with 3 different sizes, Small, Regular and Large. The desktop background can also be matched to the start screen for a unified look.

In Windows 8, users were restricted to two apps open simultaneously on screen. This has doubled to four and each can be sized independently depending on which app you are working on at the time.

2. Automatic App Updates

All applications installed from the Windows Store will automatically update in the background while you are using your PC rather than ask you to update every app individually. This is a nice time saver and an admin function you never have to worry about.

3. It consumes less disk space

Windows 8.1 has offers some new functionality & features, however Microsoft says that's it uses between 8-15% less space on your hard drive.

4. Smart Search

Search Charm on Windows 8 was pretty good, but the new search facility on Windows 8.1, called Smart Search is in a different league. It's incredibly versatile searching all aspects of the device including apps to produce more comprehensive results. When searching on a topic such as a specific famous person, Windows 8.1 will produce what Microsoft have called a "Search Hero" which displays relevant information, such as Date of Birth, Death, photographs, discography etc.

This new search facility alone is worth updating for.

5. Greater External Display Support

Windows 8.1 Allows greater options, especially when running a tablet on external displays, it also supports DPI scaling, which essential allows you to set different scaling text and icon settings per monitor, especially useful with high resolution displays.

6. Live Lock Screen

Windows 8.1 brings the option to allow calendar appointments, email notifications etc all from the lock screen, before you login. You can also set the lock screen to display a slide show of your own pictures

7. Desktop

Windows 8.1 allows the user to boot straight to the desktop, instead of the Start screen. One of the biggest complaints about Windows 8 was the removal of the Start button. It's a welcome return to a familiar friend, although the start menu in windows 8.1 is not like previous versions, it's a cut down version of the old start menu.

In Windows 8.1 the Start screen gets a major redesign to make it easier to customize, with a wider range of tile sizes to accommodate more items on the Start screen. And of course there's a check box that lets you bypass the Start screen and go straight to the desktop.
In summary there are new features in just about every corner of this platform that are superior to Windows 8. Windows have also added an online tutorial which was sadly missing before and could have prevented some of the frustration. Whilst we wouldn't say Windows 8.1 is now the finished item, it's clearly head and shoulders better than its predecessor.
With any new system, there are invariably downsides which the manufacturer doesn't wish to tell you... 

1. No Option To Un-Install

There is no way to un-install windows 8.1 or revert to a system restore point prior to the update. This means that once you press the button, there is simply no turning back. You have to work with what you've got whether you like it or not. Overall, this shouldn't be an issue for Windows 8 users and is not as relevant if you are considering upgrading from Windows 7 or earlier because if you have Windows 7 you will have recovery partition or media, so will be able to revert back quiet easily.
Microsoft's Windows 8.1 FAQs state:

"After you install Windows 8.1, you won't be able to use the recovery partition on your PC to go back to your previous version of Windows."

2. Software Reinstallation

Very often Windows 8.1 requires users to re-install software that was working fine, before the upgrade. As with any upgrade, it is advisable to ensure you have completed a full system back up and that you ensure you have installation media, user identification, licence keys and passwords for all of your other software.
As a precaution, it is worth checking whether your other software is updated to be compatible with Windows 8.1. Some software may not be compatible and therefore cease to function. It is so important you check this out before running an upgrade of this magnitude.

3.Drivers Issues

Many users have also reported that they need to re-install drivers for many devices, so external devices, peripherals; external monitors etc may stop working completely after this update. For any upgrade, there will always be one or two potential issues with drivers so this isn't something new.

4. Start Menu

Windows 8.1 restores the Start Menu, however this is not the Start menu that users have become accustomed to over the last 13 or so years. The menu has limited functionality, with its primary function being to take the user back to the start screen.

5. Mouse Issue

Some computer mice stop working correctly, or start to act sporadically under windows 8.1, especially for Gamers, although Microsoft are currently working on a fix. Windows 8 or 8.1 is not the best for working with a keyboard and mouse - it is ideally suited to touch screen devices.

6. No Direct Download

Unlike other previous service packs on Windows 7 and XP, you cannot manually download and install the service pack, the installation must be carried out from the Microsoft Apps Store.

Summary

Whenever you are considering updating your system you should ideally talk to your IT support company and allow them to run checks on your systems first and point out the potential issues you may have. Some will be known, but there's always the chance of a ghost in the closet due to the vast range of software that is available and used for business purposes with the age old chestnut of current compatibility.
Additionally, before any update, a full system back-up is advisable to protect you from a potential failure.
Our final words...

• If you're an existing Windows 8 user, the update is free and largely seamless, and adds some useful new tweaks and features. You should upgrade as soon as possible but follow our advice so that we can do our best to protect you.
• If you're a Windows 7 user consider keeping with it until it's absolutely necessary to invest in a new PC; those touch-optimized Windows 8 and 8.1 elements won't do much for you anyway, and Windows 7 still works well with most applications.

Article Source: http://EzineArticles.com/?expert=Samantha_Spiro

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Android recovery format internal sd card

ClockworkMod – also known as Clockwork and CWM – is a custom recovery for Android phones and tablets that allows you to perform several advanced recovery, restoration, installation and maintenance operations on your Android device that aren’t possible with the stock recovery. In what follows, we will cover all that this recovery is capable of doing, and how to do it. We do not discuss Touch recovery (and you shouldn’t use it on the ET4G) or Rogue recovery here. Those are different tuts…

Get clockwork

All About Android Recovery
All Android devices ship with a recovery console that is basically a partition on the device’s internal memory and can be booted into. The stock recovery of almost all Android devices provides a few basic yet handy options that allow you to factory reset your device and also to recover its operating system using an official ROM in zip format, but that’s all you can do with it. That’s where a custom recovery comes handy.

A custom Android recovery basically replaces the stock recovery with one that lets you do all you can do with the stock recovery, plus a plethora of more options to give you a lot more control on your device. With a custom recovery, you can install official and unofficial ROMs as well as other updates including apps, themes, kernels etc. using zip files, wipe not just user data but pretty much every partition on your device, mount the storage card for USB mass storage access without leaving recovery, partition your SD card, wipe Dalvik cache and battery stats, fix permissions, perform, manage and restore backups and so on.

Introduction to ClockworkMod
ClockworkMod recovery is one of the most widely used custom Android recoveries that is available for most mainstream Android devices. It is the needed recovery for AOKP, AOSP, CM7 and 9. ClockworkMod recovery has been developed by Koushik Dutta (also known as Koush) – the same guy who brought us the Android ROM Manager.
Booting into ClockworkMod
On most Android devices including ones by Samsung, you can enter recovery by powering your device off and then powering it back on while keeping either the ‘Volume Down’ or the ‘Volume-Up’ button pressed, depending on the device (volume up for our phones). This will enter the bootloader from where you can select the ‘RECOVERY’ option by navigating to it with the Volume key and entering it with the ‘Power’ key.
On most Samsung devices specifically Samsung Galaxy S series devices, you must keep both the ‘Volume-Up’ and ‘Home’ keys pressed while powering on the device, to directly enter recovery.

Tour
1. reboot system now
This one is self-explanatory.
2. apply update from sdcard
This can be used for installation of any official or unofficial update, ROM, kernel, theme etc. that is in a zip format installable from recovery, as long as the file is named update.zip and it has been placed on the root of your SD card (i.e. not in any sub-folder). Selecting this option (and most of the options featured below) will bring up a rather annoying confirmation prompt but this has saved us on multiple occasions from a lot of trouble we would have been into due to accidental key presses. This is what we are talking about:
3. wipe data/factory reset
This option wipes all user data on the device as well as cache. Doing this will leave your phone in the state it was in when you bought it or when any custom ROM was first installed. It will also wipe any sd-ext partition that you might have setup (more on this later).
4. wipe cache partition
Wipes the cache partition of the device to clear all the data accumulated there over use. This is often used before installing a new ROM, app, kernel or any similar mod via recovery.
5. install zip from sdcard
This option brings up the following sub-menu:
1. apply /sdcard/update.zip
This one is essentially the same as the ‘apply update from sdcard’ option of the main menu.
2. choose zip from sdcard
Lets you install any zip file (with any name) from any location on your SD card. The file can be for a ROM, a kernel, an application, a theme or any mod as long as it is in recovery-flashable zip format. This is the most widely used option for installing a ROM that you have downloaded and copied to your SD card.
3. toggle signature verification
Turns the signature verification on and off. When signature verification is on, you will not be able to install any custom ROMs that haven’t been signed by the developers (most custom ROMs aren’t signed). Switching it off skips the signature verification check and proceeds with the installation.
4. toggle script asserts
Seldom-used option for a vast majority of users. It simply turns script asserts on or off. If you don’t know about these (we don’t), it’s best not to change this option.
5. +++++Go Back+++++
Takes you back to the main recovery menu, obviously!
6. backup and restore Undoubtedly one of the most important features provided by a custom recovery, the backup and restore feature – also known as Nandroid backup – allows you to take a snapshot of your phone’s entire internal memory including all partitions, and save it on the SD card.
1. Backup
Takes a Nandroid backup, as explained above.
2. Restore
Lets you restore a previously taken backup. Entering this option presents you with a list of existing backups from the SD card that you can choose from for restoration.
3. Advanced Restore
This option is similar to the Restore option but once a backup has been selected to be restored, this option allows you to choose what parts of it to restore. You can choose to restore the boot, system, data, cache and sd-ext partitions.
7. mounts and storage
Allows you to perform maintenance tasks on all the internal and external partitions of your android device
1. mount/unmount /system, /data, /cache, /sdcard or /sd-ext
These options let you toggle between mounting or unmounting these respective partitions. Most users don’t need to change these options.
2. format boot, system, data, cache, sdcard or sd-ext
These let you directly format any of these partitions. Take extreme care with this option as formatting any of these partitions will result in losing all data on them, especially the boot and system partitions. Formatting the system partition will remove your ROM and leave your phone without an operating system while wiping the boot partition may brick your phone unless you restore or flash another one before rebooting your device.
3. mount USB storage
Lets you enable USB mass storage mode for your SD card right from recovery so that you can connect it to your computer via USB and transfer any files to/from it without having to leave recovery.
8. advanced
This section contains a few options most users will not require, though these can come handy quite often, especially wiping Dalvik cache, which is required before most ROM installations.
1. Reboot Recovery
Lets you directly and very conveniently reboot from recovery right back into recovery. This is useful option for certain back-to-back installations that require the device to at least boot once between them.
2. Wipe Dalvik Cache
Allows you to wipe the cache for the Dalvik virtual machine (the custom-built Java virtual machine for Android).This is required before most ROM installations and at other occasions too, for fixing some problems.
3. Wipe Battery Stats
Wipes the saved battery usage statistics and effectively recalibrates the battery. Useful in various scenarios when Android isn’t showing correct battery levels.
4. Report Error
In case of errors, this feature can be used to save a log of recent ClockworkMod recovery operations on the SD card that you can later report from Android using ROM Manager.
5. Key Test
Lets you press any of the hardware keys to see if they are properly functioning, and to see their key codes.
6. Partition SD Card
This option gives you a no-frills way to partition your SD card properly for use with ROMs that support data2ext (a very handy hack for low internal memory devices that enables an /sd-ext partition on the SD card to be used as the internal user data storage i.e. as the /data partition). Once this option is selected, you will be given options to choose the sizes for the /sd-ext partition as well as an optional /swap partition on the SD card, and will then automatically format it for you, leaving the remaining space for normal SD card usage. This option will wipe all data from your SD card so use it with caution!
7. Fix Permissions
Fixes the file permissions for the internal memory partitions back to default. This is very useful as a fix for several errors and Force-Closes that start appearing after you or an application you installed and provided root access end up messing up the permissions of important files.

Using ClockworkMod for ROM, kernel, apps, theme or mod installation
While in the complete feature tour we have already shown you how to install a ROM, kernel, app, theme or any similar mod from a recovery-flashable zip file using the recovery options, those of you who jumped straight to this section expecting to get just this information quickly are at the right place!
This guide is primary focused on a full feature tour of ClockworkMod recovery but in our previously written guide on how to flash a ROM or app from a zip to an Android device file from recovery, we have already covered in detail how to use ClockworkMod for installing any ROM, kernel, app, theme or mod using a recovery-flashable zip file. While that guide is based on an older version of ClockworkMod recovery, everything in it still applies to the latest versions and should work flawlessly.

How To Install A ROM Or App From Zip File To Android Device From Recovery
Please note that the terms ‘installing’ and ‘flashing’ can be used interchangeably here and will mean the same thing.
Disclaimer: Although I have done my best to make the following procedure as safe as possible, you should still follow this guide at your own risk.
Rooting your device renders its warranty void.
ALWAYS take backups before rooting or flashing a custom ROM or app to your phone.
Flashing a defective ROM or app to your phone might brick it so choose the ROMs and software that you flash wisely and never install a ROM or application from an untrusted source.
AddictiveTips will not be liable if your device gets damaged or bricked during the process.
Official ROM updates from device manufacturers or carriers are released in conveniently packaged installation files that you can run on your computer while your Android device is connected to it, and they automatically take care of updating your phone’s system. Similarly, most applications are available directly in the Android Market for easy installation, or come packaged as convenient ‘.apk’ files that you can just run on your Android phone to install. The case is not the same with most custom ROMs and several custom applications, which come in .zip files rather than PC installers or .apk files.
The idea of installing a customized operating system to their smartphone can be quite intimidating for inexperienced users. Though once they get used to it, some of them end up trying out different ROMs for their devices several times a day. While I don’t exactly recommend that you flash every new ROM that is made available for your Android phone, we are here to help you get over the fear of flashing a ROM that enhances the capabilities of your device so that you can use it to its fullest potential.
Here is a quick look at what we will be covering in this guide. Feel free to skip to the real deal if you already meet the prerequisites.

• Before We Begin: Battery Check
• Before We Begin: Unlocking the Bootloader (Stock Android Devices Only)
• Before We Begin: Rooting
• Before We Proceed: Installing a Custom Recovery
• The Real Deal: Installing a Custom ROM to your Phone
• The Real Deal: Installing an App From a Zip File to your Phone

There are certain steps that you might not require, and we shall be mentioning them in each section.
Before We Begin: Battery Check
Before you proceed with any of the following steps, make sure your phone’s battery level is not too low. It is recommended to have it at 50% or more. Do NOT take this lightly. If your phone’s battery runs out while you are attempting to flash a custom ROM, there is a significant chance of your phone getting bricked and becoming unusable PERMANENTLY.

Before We Begin:Unlocking the Bootloader (Stock Android Devices Only)
Note: This step applies only to Android devices with stock version of Android installed. At the moment, Google Nexus One and Nexus S are the only two such devices available. You may skip this step if you are using any other Android device.
Users of stock Android devices such as the Google Nexus One or Nexus S also need to unlock its bootloader before they can proceed. Once you have done this, you may proceed to the next step.
Before We Begin: Rooting
Note: You may skip this step if your device is already rooted, or if you already know how to root it.
Before you can install a custom ROM to your device, your phone needs to be rooted. Rooting is basically administrator or root level access required to perform administrative tasks on your Android device. Once you are done with the rooting process, you may proceed to the next step.
Before We Proceed: Installing A Custom Recovery
Note: You may skip this step if you already have a custom recovery installed on your device.
Rooting grants you the necessary access level to execute administrative tasks on your Android device but it is the recovery that provides the tools necessary to actually perform those tasks. While every Android device ships with a recovery, the stock recovery is quite limited in what it lets you do, and you need a custom recovery image to perform advanced operations on your device. Once you have a custom recovery installed on your phone, you will be ready to proceed to the next step.
The Real Deal: Installing a Custom ROM to your Phone
Now that you have a custom recovery installed on your phone, you can perform all sorts of wonderful advanced operations on your device and this includes the ability to flash a ROM or application from a zip file. The procedure is pretty standard for most ROMs, though there are certain ROMs which require additional steps for their installation. Since those steps differ from ROM to ROM, pay attention to instructions and this includes only the standard instructions here.
• Manually
1. Download the ROM from the link given in the article featuring that ROM. It should be a zip file.
2. Connect your phone to your computer via USB and mount its storage card.
3. Copy the downloaded ROM to the root of the storage card.
4. Power your phone off and reboot it into recovery. This will involve using a combination of your device’s hardware keys. Once in recovery, you can navigate its menu using the volume up and volume down hardware keys or your phone’s trackball / optical track pad if it comes equipped with one.
5. Use the ‘backup and restore’ feature of recovery to backup your existing ROM installation, software and data. This step is known as performing a nandroid backup. ALWAYS perform a backup before flashing a custom ROM, UNLESS you can afford to lose everything that’s on your phone at the moment.
Note: ALWAYS choose to perform the following steps 6, 7 and 8 UNLESS the ROM you are attempting to flash is an updated version of the same ROM that you are currently using, and is compatible with the current installation’s data. It is usually mentioned with the update whether you can install it over a previous version without wiping its data or not.
6. Get back to the main recovery menu and use the option ‘wipe data/factory reset’. You will be prompted to confirm this action. Select “Yes – Delete all user data”.
7. From the main recovery menu, select ‘wipe cache partition’. You will be prompted to confirm this action. Select ‘Yes – Wipe Cache’.
8. From the main recovery menu, enter the ‘advanced’ menu. From this menu, select ‘Wipe Dalvik Cache’. You will be prompted to confirm this action. Select ‘Yes – Format/System’.
9. From the main recovery menu, enter the ‘Mounts and Storage’ menu. From this menu, select ‘Format/System’. You will be prompted to confirm this action. Select ‘Yes – Wipe Dalvik Cache’.
10. Go back to the main recovery menu by pressing the back button and select the ‘Install zip from SD card’ option.
11. Select ‘choose zip from sdcard’ to get a list of the files and folders on your SD card. Scroll to the ROM’s file that you copied there in step 3, and select it. You will be prompted to confirm this action. Select ‘Yes – Install file_name.zip’ where file_name.zip is the name of the zip file that you are trying to install.
12. Wait patiently while the ROM is flashed to your phone via recovery.
13. Once the installation is complete, head back to the main recovery menu if you aren’t there, and select ‘reboot system now’. Your phone will now boot into the newly installed ROM.

[B][B]The Real Deal: Installing an App From a Zip File to your Phone

While most apps for Android devices are available at the app store for direct download and installation or as .apk files for direct installation, there are certain apps which are only available as zip files installable from recovery. Their installation procedure is the same as installing a custom ROM that we just featured above. However, there are a few minute differences.
• When installing an app from a zip file, you do NOT need to perform the ‘wipe data/factory reset’ or ‘wipe/system’ step so NEVER do that unless you know what you are doing, have a complete backup and want to start using your ROM as a fresh installation with the new app added.
• You might or might not need to wipe the cache and the dalvik cache for installing apps from zip file. This varies from app to app and the developers of such apps as well as many reviewers including us mention when featuring an app whether it requires a cache and dalvik cache wipe or not. However, it never hurts to wipe these caches anyway, and it does not effect the data on your device or its storage card.
There you go, this concludes the guide on how to flash a ROM or app from a zip file to your Android device using a custom recovery. To try out the skills that you just learned, search our site for custom ROMs for your phone and start flashing, always remembering to take backups first!

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ip security camera systems installation

Setting up an IP-based camera surveillance system allows you to monitor your home or business on a 24/7 basis. Systems are more sophisticated than ever, with constant improvements being made in camera resolution and ease of set-up for remote accessibility. Systems run from the basic for the homeowner who wishes to watch a part of the house when the babysitter is present to more sophisticated systems for a business owner needing to monitor many locations in his or her business. Prices range from the low hundreds to the thousands.

Steps

1. 1
   Make sure you have the necessary equipment before purchasing an IP-based camera surveillance system. You will need a mobile broadband or WiFi service from a service provider. Beyond that, you will simply need a laptop or desktop computer unless you are purchasing a monitor from a security supply company.
2. 2
   Consider what might make your home or business vulnerable to break-ins to determine the complexity of the surveillance system that is right for you.
   • If your only concern is the behavior of a housekeeper or babysitter, a simple system will suffice. In this case, you might wish to purchase IP cameras that are easily hidden inside other objects.
   • A building housing valuable equipment or personal property might need a more sophisticated surveillance system.
3. 3
   Determine how many cameras you need to install. A small property with 1 building with few entrances will not need as many cameras as a large property with many buildings. Many camera surveillance packages come in 4-camera or 8-camera units.
4. 4
   Choose the location for mounting your cameras.
   • Mount cameras near doors to record anyone entering or exiting.
   • Install cameras directly over valuables so they can be monitored at all times.
   • Place cameras around the perimeter and on the separate buildings around the property if your property is large and has outbuildings.
   • Mount cameras so that they can be seen by anyone on the property in order to deter anyone with bad intentions.
5. 5
   Install the camera hardware. You will likely need a power drill, screw, bolts and mounting brackets. Most cameras will come with the required hardware. See the instruction manual for specific instructions pertaining to your model. IP cameras do not require cables, stripping tools or staple guns like other cameras.
6. 6
   Load the software that came with the surveillance package. This will allow your computer to network with the transmitter/receiver that is getting signals from the cameras. If your cell phone is 3G capable, you will be able to view your camera videos from your cell phone. Some software will allow you to record and store video over the Internet. Motion detectors can also be installed so that video is recorded only when motion is detected.
   • The web browser interface will allow you to view your premises in real time either from the computer on the premises or from a remote computer.
   
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